Notes on Lewin Ch2: Self-adjointness
Let be a separable Hilbert space over .
Graphs
- Definition: the graph of an operator is the vector subpsace of given by
Lemma: is the graph of an operator iff
- (vector space) is a vector subspace of
- (linearity at zero) implies
- (dense projection to ) is dense in .
Spectrum
Definition: Let be an operator. the resolvent set is
and the spectrum
.π ( π΄ ) β β \ π ( π΄ ) can belong toπ (1) ifπ ( π΄ ) is not injective [ifπ΄ β π then( π΄ β π ) π£ = ( π΄ β π ) π€ is an eigenvalue ofπ£ β π€ ], (2) ifπ΄ is injective but not surjective (so the inverse cannot be defined), or (3) if it is invertible but not boundedly.π΄ β π - right shift on
is injective but not surjective - there is a left inverse but no right inverse. Said differently - there is an inverse but only on a non-dense subspace ofβ 2 ( β ) .β - for an example of the third kind: Consider
with operatorβ = πΏ 2 ( 0 , 1 ) . Generically you can takeπ΄ π β π‘ π withπ΄ = ( π΅ β π§ ) β 1 an unbounded operator withπ΅ . The inverse is of courseπ§ β π ( π΅ ) which is densely defined but is not bounded. We can consider alsoπ΄ β 1 = π΅ β π§ onπ΄ β π΄ β 1 for an operator that is unbounded with unbounded inverse.β β β
- right shift on
Let
be a d.d. operator with( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) . The ball aroundπ§ β π ( π΄ ) with radiusπ§ 1 β ( π΄ β π§ ) β 1 β is contained in
, and in this ball we have the norm convergent power series for the resolvent,π ( π΄ ) ( π΄ β π§ β² ) β 1 = ( π΄ β π§ ) β 1 β π β₯ 0 ( π§ β² β π§ ) π ( π΄ β π§ ) β π - Remark:
ifπ ( π΄ ) β β is bounded.π΄ - Lemma:
π ( ( π΄ β π§ ) β 1 ) = { 1 π β π§ : π β π ( π΄ ) } βͺ { β if π΄ is bounded { 0 } otherwise
Closure
- We say
is closed ifπ΄ is closed, i.e. ifπΊ ( π΄ ) withπ₯ π β π· ( π΄ ) andπ₯ π β β π₯ thenπ¦ π β β π₯ andπ₯ β π· ( π΄ ) .π΄ π₯ = π¦ - If
is not closed then( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) .π ( π΄ ) = β - generically
will always satisfy (i),(ii) of the above lemma characterising graphs. But it is (ii) that may fail, i.e. there can be some nonzeroπΊ ( π΄ ) Β― withπ¦ , (giving the absurdity( 0 , π¦ ) β πΊ ). Evaluation onπ΄ 0 = π¦ β 0 is like this, since convergence inπΏ 2 β πΏ 2 of highly oscillatory functions to 0 can break evaluation (the next exercise).πΏ 2 - We say that
is closable ifπ΄ has at least one closed extension. Thenπ΄ for a uniquely defined operatorπΊ ( π΄ ) Β― = πΊ ( π΄ Β― ) , called the closure of( π΄ Β― , π· ( π΄ Β― ) ) .π΄ For
,β π π π onΞ the domain of the closure areπΆ π β ( β π ) andπ» 1 respectively.π» 2 - proof idea: the operator is clearly closed on
andπ» 1 resp. To show that the closure of the operator is this closed operator, we can directly check what the closure of the graph is, which amounts to checking convergence ofπ» 2 functions to Sobolev functions.πΆ π β
- proof idea: the operator is clearly closed on
Adjoint
cute observation: the wanted equality
can be writtenβ¨ π£ , π΄ π’ β© = β¨ π΄ β π£ , π’ β© β¨ ( π£ , π΄ β π£ ) , ( π΄ π’ , β π’ ) β© β Γ β = 0 So we make the definition
πΊ ( π΄ β ) β { ( π΄ π’ , β π’ ) : π’ β π· ( π΄ ) } β clearly a vector space so (i) is OK. Suppose
in( 0 , π¦ ) . Then for allπΊ ( π΄ β ) ,π’ β π· ( π΄ ) As0 = β¨ ( 0 , π¦ ) , ( π΄ π’ , β π’ ) β© β Γ β = β¨ π¦ , β π’ β© . is dense this impliesπ· ( π΄ ) . So (ii) is also OK. Finally for (iii): recallπ’ = 0 . We want thatπ· β { π₯ β β : β π¦ β β such that ( π₯ , π¦ ) β πΊ } But noteπ· β = { 0 } . iffπ£ β π· β (zeroing out the second inner product in the product space), and( π£ , 0 ) β πΊ β ( π£ , 0 ) β πΊ β = { ( π΄ π’ , β π’ ) : π’ β π· ( π΄ ) } β β = { ( π΄ π’ , β π’ ) : π’ β π· ( π΄ ) } Β― i.e. iff
, which is precisely the condition needed for closability. It follows:( 0 , π£ ) β πΊ ( π΄ ) Β― - density of
allows a definition ofπ· ( π΄ ) , butπ΄ β may not be dense. And it is dense iffπ· ( π΄ β ) is closeable. So we will henceforth only use closeable d.d. operators.π΄
- density of
Once upon a time I learned that we should define
π· ( π΄ β ) = { π£ β β : β π€ such that for all π₯ β π· ( π΄ ) , β¨ π£ , π΄ π₯ β© = β¨ π€ , π₯ β© } this is a reformulation of the graph definition above, which you can see by projecting
to the first coordinate.πΊ ( π΄ β )
- If
is closeable thenπ΄ is closed. Also,π΄ β andπ΄ Β― = π΄ β β .π΄ β = π΄ Β― β If
is a closeable operator, then( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) .ker ( π΄ β β π§ Β― ) = ran ( π΄ β π§ ) β = ran ( π΄ Β― β π§ ) β Proof: Observe that
π£ β ker ( π΄ β β π§ Β― ) iff π΄ β π£ = π§ Β― π£ . Then note that
iff for all( π£ , π§ π£ ) β πΊ ( π΄ β ) ,π’ β π· ( π΄ ) log ( π₯ ) β¨ π£ , π΄ π’ β© = β¨ π§ Β― π£ , π’ β© = β¨ π£ , π§ π’ β© , i.e. iff
.π£ β ran ( π΄ β π§ ) β
- Exercise: If
thenπ΄ β π΅ ( β ) also. [this is an application of Riesz representation. The start of proof: Letπ· ( π΄ β ) = β be fixed, and considerπ£ β¦]π π£ ( π₯ ) = β¨ π£ , π΄ π₯ β©
Symmetry
is symmetric if( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) for allβ¨ π£ , π΄ π€ β© = β¨ π΄ π£ , π€ β© . Equivalentlyπ£ , π€ β π· ( π΄ ) .πΊ ( π΄ ) β πΊ ( π΄ β ) - Exercise: show that if
is symmetric then its closure is as well. [This is trivial asπ΄ by minimality]πΊ ( π΄ ) β πΊ ( π΄ Β― ) β πΊ ( π΄ β ) Theorem (Spectrum of symmetric operators): Let
be a symmetric operator. Then its spectrum is nonempty, and is either:( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) - all of
,β - closed upper half plane
,{ β π§ β₯ 0 } - closed lower half plane
,{ β π§ β€ 0 } - some nonempty subset of
.β
Furthermore, any eigenvalues must be real, and if
is surjective forπ΄ β π§ , thenπ§ β β , andπ§ β π ( π΄ ) is contained in the half plane that does not containπ ( π΄ ) .π§ Proof uses the important identity for symmetric operators: for
,π , π β β β ( π΄ β π β π π ) π’ β 2 = β ( π΄ β π ) π’ β 2 + π 2 β π’ β 2 > π 2 β π’ β 2 . Hence
- if
thenπ β 0 implies( π΄ β π β π π ) π’ = 0 . So all eigenvalues must be real.π’ = 0 - if
andπ β 0 is invertible then it is automatically bounded byπ΄ β π β π π .1 π
So the only way to be in the spectrum when
is forπ β 0 to be not surjective.π΄ β π β π π - Proof: Suppose that there is a point in
. Assume for a contradiction thatπ ( π΄ ) β© { β π§ > 0 } is not empty. Letπ ( π΄ ) β© { β π§ > 0 } on the boundary of this set withπ§ = π + π π , and letπ > 0 approachπ§ π = π π + π π π β π ( π΄ ) . By the above it follows that the ball of radiusπ§ around| π π | is contained inπ§ π . But eventuallyπ ( π΄ ) and| π π | > π 2 , so in fact| π§ β π§ π | < π 2 is not on the boundary which is absurd. It follows that ifπ§ has a single point, it is the entire half plane. [If a half plane is excluded then the real line is a subset ofπ ( π΄ ) β© { β π§ > 0 } since it is closed.]π ( π΄ ) For the fact that the spectrum is always non-empty: we know this already for bounded operators. Suppose not for an unbounded
. Thenπ΄ so0 β π ( π΄ ) exists and is bounded and symmetric. We know thatπ΄ β 1 impliesπ ( π΄ ) = { } . But it turns out that the only bounde symmetric operator with zero spectrum is the trivial operator, which follows form the next exercise:π ( π΄ β 1 ) = { 0 } Exercise 2.24 (Bounded Symmetric Operators)
Let
be a bounded and symmetric operator onπ΅ . Following [Bre11, Prop. 6.9], we will show thatπ· ( π΅ ) = π» π β inf π£ β π» , β π£ β = 1 β¨ π£ , π΅ π£ β© , π β sup π£ β π» , β π£ β = 1 β¨ π£ , π΅ π£ β© both belong to the spectrum of
. We recall thatπ΅ is always real sinceβ¨ π£ , π΅ π£ β© is symmetric. Show that for allπ΅ we haveπ£ , π€ β π» | β¨ π€ , ( π΅ β π ) π£ β© | β€ β¨ π£ , ( π΅ β π ) π£ β© 1 2 β¨ π€ , ( π΅ β π ) π€ β© 1 2 and deduce that
β ( π΅ β π ) π£ β β€ β¨ π£ , ( π΅ β π ) π£ β© 1 2 β π΅ β π β 1 2 . Using a minimizing sequence for the minimization problem
, deduce thatπ . Similarly, we haveπ β π ( π΅ ) (we will see later in Theorem 2.33 thatπ β π ( π΅ ) ). Deduce from the fact thatπ ( π΅ ) β [ π , π ] that ifπ , π β π ( π΅ ) thenπ ( π΅ ) = { 0 } . [proof is just Cauchy-Schwarz and reading the outline.]π΅ β‘ 0
- if
- all of
Self-adjointness
An operator is self-adjoint if
Interpretation. For any symmetric operator we always have
, i.e. we have the inclusion of graphsπ΄ β π΄ β { ( π£ , π΄ π£ ) : π£ β π· ( π΄ ) } β { ( π£ , π΄ β π£ ) : π£ β π· ( π΄ β ) } . In finite dimension these two sets coincide (as they are both
-dimensional subspaces ofπ ), but in infinite dimension the second can be strictly larger. Self-adjointness is the condition that they coincide,β Γ β { ( π£ , π΄ π£ ) : π£ β π· ( π΄ ) } = { ( π£ , π΄ β π£ ) : π£ β π· ( π΄ β ) } . An operator is self-adjoint iff it satisfies for any
π£ , π€ β β β¨ π£ , π΄ π§ β© = β¨ π€ , π§ β© for all π§ β π· ( π΄ ) implies π£ β π· ( π΄ ) and π΄ π£ = π€ the left hand side is a weak formulation of the equation
. So a self-adjoint operator is one for which a weak solution is in fact strong.π΄ π£ = π€ - All self-adjoint extensions (note: plural) are between
andπ΄ Β― .π΄ β - Exercise: Let
be a symmetric operator. Show that( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) is self-adjoint iffπ΄ Β― is symmetric. [ Ifπ΄ β is self-adjoint, thenπ΄ Β― is symmetric. Conversely, ifπ΄ β = ( π΄ Β― ) β = π΄ Β― is symmetric thenπ΄ β soπ΄ Β― β π΄ β β π΄ β β = π΄ Β― is self-adjoint.]π΄ Β― = π΄ β - If
andπ· ( π΄ ) = β is symmetric thenπ΄ is self-adjoint and bounded. [This is becauseπ΄ . Thusπ· ( π΄ β ) β π· ( π΄ ) is a closed operator defined on the full Banach space - by the closed graph theorem it is bounded.]π΄
Characterisation and Weyl Sequences
Theorem (Characterisation) Let
be a symmetric operator. Then the following are equivalent:( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) is self-adjoint.π΄ .π ( π΄ ) β β - there exists
such thatπ β β andπ΄ β π are both surjective fromπ΄ β π Β― toπ· ( π΄ ) .β
NB 2 is a priori much stronger than 3 as it implies that 3 holds for all
.π β β \ β Exercise: Let
be a symmetric operator. Show that( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) is essentially self-adjoint iff there existsπ΄ such thatπ β β andπ΄ β π have dense range inπ΄ β π Β― .β Theorem. Let
be self-adjoint. Then TFAE:( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) .π β π ( π΄ ) = 0.inf π£ β π· ( π΄ ) β π£ β = 1 β ( π΄ β π ) π£ β - there exists a sequence
withπ£ π β π· ( π΄ ) andβ π£ π β = 1 .β ( π΄ β π ) π£ π β β 0
A sequence as in (3) is called a Weyl sequence for
andπ΄ .π Proof:
is trivial. For( 2 ) βΊ ( 3 ) : if( 2 ) βΉ ( 1 ) is not invertible we are done. Ifπ΄ β π is invertible, then (2) implies it cannot be bounded. Indeed, for anyπ΄ β π withπ€ β β we would haveπ£ = ( π΄ β π ) β 1 π€ β ( π΄ β π ) β 1 π€ β β€ πΆ β π€ β i.e. β π£ β β€ πΆ β ( π΄ β π ) π£ β which contradicts (2), so (1) holds. Conversely if the infimum is some
then we would haveπ > 0 , so injective i.e.β ( π΄ β π ) π£ β β₯ π β π£ β , and hence has dense range. Ifker ( π΄ β π ) = { 0 } then this inequality implies( π΄ β π ) π£ π β π€ is Cauchy, so the range is closed. Henceπ£ π is surjective, soπ΄ β π .π β π ( π΄ ) Theorem. Let
be self-adjoint. We have( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) inf π ( π΄ ) = inf π£ β π· ( π΄ ) β π£ β = 1 β¨ π£ , π΄ π£ β© , sup π ( π΄ ) = sup π£ β π· ( π΄ ) β π£ β = 1 β¨ π£ , π΄ π£ β© . In particular, the spectrum is bounded below iff
for allβ¨ π£ , π΄ π£ β© β³ β π£ β 2 .π£ β π· ( π΄ )
Diagonalization
- Theorem Let
be a symmetric operator on a domainπ΄ , such that there exists a Hilbert basisπ· ( π΄ ) β π» of( π π ) π β₯ 1 composed of elements ofπ» , which are all eigenvectors:π· ( π΄ ) withπ΄ π π = π π π π . Then, the closure ofπ π β β is the operatorπ΄
The latter is a self-adjoint operator whose spectrum is
In other words,
Momentum and Laplacian on β π
withπ π β β π π π , π΄ β β Ξ andπ· ( π π ) β { π β πΏ 2 : π π π β πΏ 2 } β β = πΏ 2 are self-adjoint. Moreover,π· ( π΄ ) = π» 2 andπ ( π π ) = β , and they have no eigenvalues.π ( π΄ ) = [ 0 , β ) - Only proof for
is given. Symmetry (integration by parts) is easy. Then to check self-adjointness we can check the surjectivity ofΞ forπ΄ β π , which is convenient as this gives us a japanese bracket on the Fourier side to work with. The claim on the spectrum comes fromπ = β 1 = π Β―
- Only proof for
Momentum on ( 0 , 1 )
Let
,π· ( π min ) = πΆ π β andπ· ( π max ) = π» 1 . Thenπ· ( π 0 ) = π» 0 1 ( 0 , 1 ) π min β ( π max ) β = π 0 β π 0 β = ( π min ) β = π max in particular/addition
is symmetric but not self-adjoint, and its closure isπ min .π 0 , and is not symmetric.π max = ( π min ) β = π 0 β is closed and symmetric but not self-adjoint.π 0 - A symmetric operator has
. Soπ΄ β π΄ β is always a closed extension of such an operator. But this example shows that the closure of a symmetric operator need not be self-adjoint, and that the adjoint of a symmetric operator need not be symmetric. When we try to compute the adjoint we see the issues: the domain has all functions inπ΄ β satisfying the adjoint equation, and the vanishing ofπΏ 2 gives freedom to have a nonzero value at the boundary forπ£ β π· ( π 0 ) , and breaks symmetry.π£ β π· ( π 0 β )
- A symmetric operator has
We have
. The spectrum ofπ ( π 0 ) = π ( π min ) = π ( π max ) = β consists only of eigenvalues, while the other spectra have none.π max - this is because all solutions to the eigenvalue equation for
areπ max , and also separately check thatπ π π π₯ .0 β π π π π₯ β ran ( π 0 β π ) β
- this is because all solutions to the eigenvalue equation for
The strict symmetric extensions of
are defined byπ 0 on the domainπ per , π π = β π π β² π· ( π per , π ) = { π β π» 1 : π ( 1 ) = π π π π ( 0 ) } . These operators are all self-adjoint, and their spectrum is
, consisting only of eigenvalues.π ( π per , π ) = { 2 π π + π : π β β€ } - the condition
is known as the Born-von Karman boundary condition.π ( 1 ) = π π π π ( 0 ) - In the proof it is shown that
is codimension 1 inπ» 0 1 .π» per , π
- the condition
Momentum on β +
Making the similar definitions of
Exercises
- (
and Fourier Series) Skipping for now as it seems routineπ» per 1 - (Beware of Commutators) The issue here is that
wont necessarily be defined asπ per π could take you out ofπ .π· ( π per ) Exercise 2.48 (Deficiency Indices) Let
be a closed symmetric operator.( π΄ , π· ( π΄ ) ) Show that
for allβ ( π΄ + π ) π£ β = β ( π΄ β π ) π£ β . Deduce that the operatorπ£ β π· ( π΄ ) is an isometry fromπ = ( π΄ + π ) ( π΄ β π ) β 1 intoran ( π΄ β π ) .ran ( π΄ + π ) This follows from the nice identity from before that
β π΄ β π β π π β π’ 2 = β ( π΄ β π ) π’ β 2 + π 2 β π’ β 2 with
andπ = 0 . (GPT tells me the formula forπ = Β± 1 has the inverse defined only as a map onπ , not necessarily a proper resolvent.)ran ( π΄ β π )
What can we conclude in finite dimension?
- Peeking ahead at the later parts of the exercise, I think we are supposed to see that
(using the finiteness of dimension to conclude from the rank).dim ker ( π΄ β π ) = dim ker ( π΄ + π )
- Peeking ahead at the later parts of the exercise, I think we are supposed to see that
Let
be a self-adjoint extension ofπ΅ = π΅ β . Show thatπ΄ is an isometry fromπ = ( π΅ + π ) ( π΅ β π ) β 1 intoβ , which is an extension ofβ , that is, such thatπ for allπ π = π π .π β π· ( π΄ ) - This is easy because we already know that
and thatπ β π ( π΅ ) is surjective.π΅ + π
- This is easy because we already know that
Then show that the image of
byran ( π΄ + π ) β = ker ( π΄ β β π ) containsπ .ran ( π΄ β π ) β = ker ( π΄ β + π ) - We want to show that
. Letπ ( ker ( π΄ β β π ) ) β ker ( π΄ β + π ) ; we want to show that there isπ΄ β π£ = β π π£ inπ€ such thatker ( π΄ β β π ) . Clearly suchπ π€ = π£ would be defined byπ€ . Lets check thatπ€ = π β 1 π£ = ( π΅ β π ) ( π΅ + π ) β 1 π£ . Forπ€ β ker ( π΄ β + π ) = ran ( π΄ β π ) β :π’ β π· ( π΄ ) β π· ( π΅ )
β¨ ( π΄ β π ) π’ , π€ β© = β¨ π’ , ( π΅ + π ) ( π΅ β π ) ( π΅ + π ) β 1 π£ β© = β¨ π’ , ( π΅ β π ) ( π΅ + π ) ( π΅ + π ) β 1 π£ β© = β¨ π’ , ( π΅ β π ) π£ β© = β¨ ( π΅ + π ) π’ , π£ β© = β¨ ( π΄ + π ) π’ , π£ β© = 0 . - We want to show that
Deduce that a symmetric operator can only have self-adjoint extensions if
(which can be finite or infinite). [Follows asdim ker ( π΄ β β π ) = dim ker ( π΄ β + π ) is an isometry]π Reinterpret the result of Theorem 2.40 in this perspective.
- (This theorem concerns the lack of self adjoint extensions for the momentum operator on the half line.) The result on the spectrum
is enough to show that there can be no self adjoint extension.π ( π ) = β β
- (This theorem concerns the lack of self adjoint extensions for the momentum operator on the half line.) The result on the spectrum